UPSC Mock Test (100 Questions) on Citizenship & Constitutional Amendments
Challenge yourself with 100 UPSC-level questions on Indian Citizenship and all major Constitutional Amendments. Get detailed explanations to boost your Indian Polity score for the upcoming Civil Services Exam.
Result:
1
Consider the following statements regarding citizenship at the commencement of the Indian Constitution:
1. A person domiciled in India automatically became a citizen if they were born in India.
2. A person who migrated from Pakistan to India after July 19, 1948, could only become a citizen after being registered.
3. A person of Indian origin residing abroad could be registered as a citizen by a diplomatic representative.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. A person domiciled in India automatically became a citizen if they were born in India.
2. A person who migrated from Pakistan to India after July 19, 1948, could only become a citizen after being registered.
3. A person of Indian origin residing abroad could be registered as a citizen by a diplomatic representative.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: All three statements are correct as per the constitutional provisions for citizenship at its commencement. Domicile combined with birth in India granted citizenship. Migration from Pakistan after the specified date required registration. Persons of Indian origin abroad could also be registered.
2
According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, a person born in India on or after December 3, 2004, is considered a citizen of India only if:
Explanation: The text specifies that for those born in India on or after December 3, 2004, citizenship is granted only if both parents are Indian citizens, or if one parent is a citizen and the other is not an illegal migrant at the time of their birth.
3
Which of the following categories of persons can acquire Indian citizenship through registration?
1. A person of Indian origin ordinarily resident in India for five years.
2. A person married to a citizen of India and ordinarily resident in India for seven years.
3. Minor children of persons who are citizens of India.
4. An Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder for five years and ordinarily resident in India for twelve months.
1. A person of Indian origin ordinarily resident in India for five years.
2. A person married to a citizen of India and ordinarily resident in India for seven years.
3. Minor children of persons who are citizens of India.
4. An Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder for five years and ordinarily resident in India for twelve months.
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; the residency requirement for a person of Indian origin is seven years, not five. Statements 2, 3, and 4 correctly list the conditions for acquiring citizenship by registration as per the given data.
4
A person can lose their Indian citizenship by deprivation if they have been ordinarily resident out of India for ________ years continuously.
Explanation: The Citizenship Act, 1955, states that continuous ordinary residence outside India for seven years is a ground for compulsory termination of citizenship by the Central Government.
5
Consider the following statements about Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI):
1. OCI is a form of dual citizenship recognized by the Indian Constitution.
2. An OCI cardholder has the right to vote in Lok Sabha elections.
3. An OCI cardholder is exempted from registration with local police authorities for any length of stay in India.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. OCI is a form of dual citizenship recognized by the Indian Constitution.
2. An OCI cardholder has the right to vote in Lok Sabha elections.
3. An OCI cardholder is exempted from registration with local police authorities for any length of stay in India.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect as the Constitution prohibits dual citizenship and OCI is not dual citizenship. Statement 2 is incorrect as OCI cardholders do not have voting rights. Statement 3 is correct; they are exempted from registration with FRRO/FRO.
6
Assertion (A): Indian citizenship automatically terminates if a citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country.
Reason (R): Article 9 of the Constitution states that no person shall be a citizen of India if they have voluntarily acquired foreign citizenship.
Reason (R): Article 9 of the Constitution states that no person shall be a citizen of India if they have voluntarily acquired foreign citizenship.
Explanation: The termination of citizenship upon acquiring foreign citizenship is a direct consequence of the constitutional provision in Article 9, which explicitly forbids dual citizenship. Thus, both statements are true and R correctly explains A.
7
The power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship is vested in the:
Explanation: Article 11 of the Constitution explicitly empowers the Parliament to make laws regarding all matters relating to citizenship, including its acquisition and termination.
8
Which of the following is NOT a condition for acquiring citizenship by naturalisation?
Explanation: Being ordinarily resident for seven years is a condition for citizenship by registration for a person of Indian origin, not naturalisation. The naturalisation process requires residing in India for twelve months immediately preceding the application, among other conditions.
9
The concept of single citizenship in the Indian Constitution was adopted from the constitution of which country?
Explanation: The data mentions that the concept of single citizenship is borrowed from the British Constitution, contrasting it with the dual citizenship model of the USA and Switzerland.
10
A person born outside India on or after December 10, 1992, is considered a citizen by descent if:
Explanation: The rule was changed on December 10, 1992, to allow for citizenship by descent if either parent (not just the father) was a citizen of India at the time of birth.
11
Which of the following fundamental rights are available to citizens of India but not to aliens?
1. Article 15 (Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth)
2. Article 19 (Freedoms of speech, assembly, etc.)
3. Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty)
4. Article 29 (Protection of interests of minorities)
1. Article 15 (Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth)
2. Article 19 (Freedoms of speech, assembly, etc.)
3. Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty)
4. Article 29 (Protection of interests of minorities)
Explanation: According to the text, Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30 are available only to citizens. Article 21 is available to both citizens and aliens. Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
12
The merger of the Person of Indian Origin (PIO) card scheme with the Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card scheme was done by the:
Explanation: The provided text explicitly states that "The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2015, merged the PIO card scheme with the OCI card scheme".
13
Which one of the following is a ground for the Central Government to deprive a person of their Indian citizenship?
Explanation: Voluntary acquisition leads to termination, not deprivation. Renunciation is a voluntary act. The specified migration relates to citizenship at commencement. Imprisonment for two years within five years of becoming a citizen is a specific ground for compulsory deprivation by the government.
14
Regarding eligibility for the office of President, how does India's policy differ from that of the USA?
Explanation: The text clearly states that in India, both citizens by birth and naturalised citizens are eligible for the office of President, whereas in the USA, only a citizen by birth is eligible.
15
The acquisition of citizenship by the incorporation of a foreign territory into India is exemplified by the case of:
Explanation: The text provides a specific example: "when Pondicherry became a part of India, the Citizenship (Pondicherry) Order, 1962 was issued."
16
Under the Constitution, a person who migrated to India from Pakistan before _________ and had been ordinarily resident in India since their migration became a citizen automatically.
Explanation: July 19, 1948, is the cut-off date mentioned in the Constitution for acquiring citizenship without the need for registration for migrants from Pakistan.
17
Which of the following statements about the loss of citizenship is incorrect?
Explanation: The text states that when a parent renounces citizenship, "the minor child also loses their Indian citizenship," although they may resume it upon reaching 18. Therefore, the statement that the child retains citizenship is incorrect.
18
The High-Level Committee on the Indian Diaspora, which recommended granting dual citizenship to PIOs, was chaired by:
Explanation: The document explicitly mentions "The High-Level Committee on the Indian Diaspora under the Chairmanship of L.M. Singhvi."
19
An "illegal migrant" is defined as a foreigner who has:
1. Entered India without valid travel documents.
2. Entered with valid documents but stays beyond the permitted period.
3. Applied for asylum in India.
1. Entered India without valid travel documents.
2. Entered with valid documents but stays beyond the permitted period.
3. Applied for asylum in India.
Explanation: The definition provided in the text covers entering without valid documents or overstaying with valid documents. It does not mention applying for asylum as part of the definition of an illegal migrant.
20
An OCI cardholder is NOT entitled to which of the following rights?
Explanation: The text states that OCI cardholders do not have all the rights of an Indian citizen, specifically mentioning "equality of opportunity in public employment" as a right they do not possess.
21
A person is ineligible to be registered as an OCI Cardholder if they, their parents, or grandparents have ever been a citizen of:
Explanation: The Q&A section explicitly states that a person whose parents or grandparents were citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh is not eligible for OCI.
22
Article 10 of the Constitution provides that a person who is a citizen of India shall continue to be a citizen, subject to:
Explanation: Article 10 ensures the continuation of citizenship but makes it subject to the provisions of any law enacted by the Parliament, as stated in the provided text.
23
The requirement of having 'adequate knowledge of a language specified in the Eighth Schedule' is a condition for acquiring citizenship by:
Explanation: The text lists knowledge of an Eighth Schedule language as one of the key qualifications for a person to acquire citizenship by naturalisation.
24
Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens?
Explanation: Article 9 explicitly states that a person who voluntarily acquires the citizenship of any foreign state shall no longer be a citizen of India.
25
What is the required period of ordinary residence in India for a person married to an Indian citizen to be eligible for citizenship by registration?
Explanation: The text clearly states under the 'By Registration' section that a person married to a citizen of India must be ordinarily resident in India for seven years before applying.
26
Which of the following Constitutional provisions can be amended by a simple majority of the Parliament?
1. Admission or establishment of new states.
2. Fundamental Rights.
3. Quorum in Parliament.
4. Election of the President.
1. Admission or establishment of new states.
2. Fundamental Rights.
3. Quorum in Parliament.
4. Election of the President.
Explanation: Amending Fundamental Rights and the Election of the President requires a special majority (and state ratification for the latter). Admission of new states and quorum in Parliament are listed as provisions amendable by a simple majority, which is outside the scope of Article 368.
27
Assertion (A): The President of India must give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
Reason (R): The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give assent to such bills.
Reason (R): The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give assent to such bills.
Explanation: The assertion that the President must give assent is a fact. The reason provided, the 24th Amendment Act, is precisely why this is the case, as it made presidential assent to constitutional amendment bills mandatory.
28
The "basic structure" doctrine, which limits Parliament's power to amend the Constitution, was established by the Supreme Court in the:
Explanation: The provided text explicitly states, "...the Supreme Court, in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), ruled that Parliament cannot amend the 'basic structure' of the Constitution."
29
Match List I (Amendment Act) with List II (Key Provision).
| List I (Amendment Act) | List II (Key Provision) |
|---|---|
| A. 42nd Amendment | 1. Reduced Voting Age |
| B. 44th Amendment | 2. Anti-Defection Law |
| C. 52nd Amendment | 3. Added Fundamental Duties |
| D. 61st Amendment | 4. Deleted Right to Property as a Fundamental Right |
Explanation: 42nd Amendment added Fundamental Duties. 44th Amendment deleted the Right to Property as a fundamental right. 52nd Amendment introduced the Anti-Defection Law. 61st Amendment reduced the voting age to 18.
30
Which of the following statements about the procedure for a Constitutional Amendment Bill is INCORRECT?
Explanation: The text clearly states, "There is no provision for a joint sitting of the two Houses if a disagreement arises" over a constitutional amendment bill. The other statements are correct features of the procedure.
31
The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 imposed a limit on the size of the Council of Ministers, restricting it to _______ of the total strength of the Lok Sabha or the respective State Assembly.
Explanation: The table and Q&A on amendments specify that the 91st Amendment limited the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the strength of the house.
32
Amending which of the following provisions requires a special majority of the Parliament plus the consent of at least half of the state legislatures?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy.
2. Representation of states in Parliament.
3. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
4. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
1. Directive Principles of State Policy.
2. Representation of states in Parliament.
3. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
4. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
Explanation: Amending DPSPs requires only a special majority. Abolition/creation of legislative councils requires a simple majority. Representation of states in Parliament and the Seventh Schedule lists are federal provisions requiring state ratification.
33
The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts of 1992 are significant because they:
Explanation: The table clearly shows that the 73rd Amendment relates to Panchayati Raj institutions (Part IX) and the 74th Amendment relates to urban local bodies (Part IX-A).
34
Which amendment is known as the 'Mini-Constitution' due to the large number of changes it brought to the Indian Constitution?
Explanation: The provided text explicitly states that the 42nd Amendment of 1976 is "Known as the 'Mini-Constitution'".
35
The 103rd Amendment Act, 2019, is related to:
Explanation: The table of important amendments clearly states that the 103rd Amendment (2019) "Provided for 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)".
36
Which of the following is considered a criticism of the Indian constitutional amendment procedure?
Explanation: One of the criticisms listed in the text is that "The power to initiate an amendment lies with the Parliament. State legislatures cannot initiate any bill for constitutional amendment" (with a minor exception). The other options are incorrect according to the text.
37
The 86th Amendment Act, 2002, made elementary education a fundamental right under which new article?
Explanation: The table on amendments specifies that the 86th Amendment "Made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21-A."
38
The term 'armed rebellion' was substituted for 'internal disturbance' as a ground for proclaiming a National Emergency by the:
Explanation: The text states that the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, "Replaced 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' for national emergency."
39
Constitutional status and protection were given to co-operative societies by which amendment?
Explanation: The table mentions that the 97th Amendment Act of 2011 "Gave constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies."
40
What does "special majority" as required for most constitutional amendments under Article 368 mean?
Explanation: The text defines special majority as having two components: "a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members present and voting."
41
Which of the following statements is true regarding the amendment of federal provisions of the Constitution?
Explanation: The text states that for amending federal provisions, the bill "must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority." It also notes that no time frame is prescribed for ratification.
42
The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the:
Explanation: The table clearly lists that the 1st Amendment of 1951 "Added Ninth Schedule to protect land reform laws from judicial review."
43
Constitutional status was conferred upon the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) by the:
Explanation: The amendment table indicates that the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 "Conferred Constitutional status on the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)."
44
Arrange the following amendments in chronological order of their enactment:
1. Anti-Defection Law (52nd Amendment)
2. Reduction of voting age (61st Amendment)
3. Introduction of GST (101st Amendment)
4. Making elementary education a fundamental right (86th Amendment)
1. Anti-Defection Law (52nd Amendment)
2. Reduction of voting age (61st Amendment)
3. Introduction of GST (101st Amendment)
4. Making elementary education a fundamental right (86th Amendment)
Explanation: The years of enactment are: 52nd (1985), 61st (1989), 86th (2002), and 101st (2016). Therefore, the correct chronological order is 1, 2, 4, 3.
45
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, added all of the following to the Constitution EXCEPT:
Explanation: The Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) was added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, not the 42nd Amendment. The other three were key provisions of the 42nd Amendment.
46
What is the key difference between how a citizen by birth and a naturalised citizen can lose their citizenship through deprivation?
Explanation: The ground for deprivation related to being "imprisoned in any country for two years" is specifically mentioned as being "within five years after registration or naturalisation." This condition is logically not applicable to a citizen by birth.
47
Which Part and Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with Citizenship?
Explanation: The text begins by stating, "The Indian Constitution deals with citizenship in Articles 5 to 11 under Part II."
48
A person who migrated to Pakistan from India after ________, but later returned to India for resettlement, could become a citizen after fulfilling certain conditions.
Explanation: The provisions for citizenship at the commencement of the constitution specify March 1, 1947, as the cut-off date for migration to Pakistan.
49
The term "enemy alien" refers to a subject of a country that:
Explanation: The provided data defines an "enemy alien" as a subject of a country that is at war with India.
50
If a citizen of full age and capacity makes a declaration renouncing their Indian citizenship, this act is known as loss of citizenship by:
Explanation: The text defines renunciation as the act where a citizen of full age and capacity can declare that they renounce their Indian citizenship.
51
The power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure is itself located in which article?
Explanation: The text clearly states that Article 368 in Part XX grants Parliament the power to amend the Constitution and outlines the procedure. It also mentions that Article 368 itself can be amended using the procedure that requires state ratification.
52
A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced in:
Explanation: The procedure for amendment states, "An amendment can be initiated only by introducing a bill in either House of Parliament, not in the state legislatures."
53
Which amendment affirmed the Parliament's power to amend any part of the Constitution, including fundamental rights?
Explanation: The table shows that the 24th Amendment Act of 1971 "Affirmed Parliament's power to amend any part of the Constitution, including fundamental rights."
54
Which amendment is associated with the reorganisation of states on a linguistic basis and the abolition of Class A, B, C, D states?
Explanation: The 7th Amendment Act of 1956 led to the reorganisation of states on a linguistic basis as mentioned in the provided table.
55
The provision for the Goods and Services Tax Council was added as part of the amendment that introduced GST, which was the:
Explanation: The text lists the 101st Amendment Act, 2016 as the one that "Introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST)." The GST Council is a key feature of this amendment.
56
Amending provisions related to citizenship acquisition and termination requires:
Explanation: The text lists "Citizenship—acquisition and termination" under the category of amendments that can be made by a "Simple Majority of the Parliament," noting these are not considered amendments under Article 368.
57
The 99th Amendment Act, 2014, which was later declared unconstitutional, attempted to establish the:
Explanation: The Q&A section on amendments clearly states that the 99th Amendment established the NJAC and that it was subsequently declared unconstitutional and void.
58
Which amendment added the languages Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule?
Explanation: The Q&A section explicitly mentions that the 71st Amendment Act of 1992 added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule.
59
The land boundary agreement between India and Bangladesh was implemented through which constitutional amendment?
Explanation: The information provided states that the "land boundary agreement between India and Bangladesh was implemented via which amendment? Ans: The 100th Amendment Act, 2015."
60
According to the critics of the amendment procedure, what is a key procedural gap regarding state ratification?
Explanation: A specific criticism mentioned in the text is that "The Constitution does not prescribe a time frame within which state legislatures should ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them."
61
The 69th Amendment Act, 1991, is significant for:
Explanation: The Q&A section states that the 69th Amendment Act of 1991 accorded the special status for the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
62
The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, did which of the following?
1. Deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights.
2. Added the words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' to the Preamble.
3. Replaced 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' for national emergency.
1. Deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights.
2. Added the words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' to the Preamble.
3. Replaced 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' for national emergency.
Explanation: The 44th Amendment deleted the Right to Property from Fundamental Rights and replaced 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion'. Adding 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' was done by the 42nd Amendment.
63
The abolition of privy purses and privileges of former rulers of princely states was achieved by the:
Explanation: The provided data states that the 26th Amendment Act of 1971 abolished the privy purses and privileges.
64
The 91st Amendment Act, 2003, strengthened the anti-defection law by:
Explanation: The table on amendments states that the 91st Amendment "Strengthened the anti-defection law by removing the provision for splits."
65
Which amendment bifurcated the combined National Commission for SCs and STs into two separate bodies?
Explanation: The Q&A section mentions that the 89th Amendment Act of 2003 was responsible for the bifurcation of the National Commission for SCs and STs.
66
Consider the timeline for acquiring citizenship by birth for a person born in India:
1. Before July 1, 1987: Citizen by birth irrespective of parents' nationality.
2. Between July 1, 1987 and December 2, 2004: Citizen if either parent was a citizen.
3. On or after December 3, 2004: Citizen if both parents are citizens or one is a citizen and the other is not an illegal migrant.
Which of these statements correctly reflects the provisions of the Citizenship Act, 1955?
1. Before July 1, 1987: Citizen by birth irrespective of parents' nationality.
2. Between July 1, 1987 and December 2, 2004: Citizen if either parent was a citizen.
3. On or after December 3, 2004: Citizen if both parents are citizens or one is a citizen and the other is not an illegal migrant.
Which of these statements correctly reflects the provisions of the Citizenship Act, 1955?
Explanation: All three statements accurately describe the evolution of the conditions for acquiring citizenship by birth in India as detailed in the provided text.
67
A person of Indian origin is ordinarily resident in an overseas country. To acquire Indian citizenship by registration, they must meet the criteria of being a PIO and:
Explanation: The text specifies that "A person of Indian origin ordinarily resident in any country outside undivided India" is a category eligible for registration. This is distinct from the category requiring seven years of residency in India. The process would happen via diplomatic missions.
68
If the territory of Goa becomes a part of India, the Government of India would specify the persons who shall be citizens of India. This method of acquiring citizenship is called:
Explanation: The provided text explicitly lists "By Incorporation of Territory" as one of the five ways to acquire citizenship, using the example of Pondicherry.
69
An Indian citizen has been ordinarily resident in the UK for eight consecutive years. On what grounds can their citizenship be terminated by the Central Government?
Explanation: Being ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously is a specific ground for compulsory termination by the government, which is called Deprivation.
70
The primary law enacted by the Indian Parliament to deal with the acquisition and loss of citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution is the:
Explanation: The text clearly states, "In accordance with the power vested by Article 11, the Parliament enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955."
71
Which of the following is a key benefit for an OCI cardholder?
Explanation: The text explicitly mentions that OCI cardholders "are entitled to certain benefits such as a multiple-entry, multi-purpose life-long visa for visiting India." They cannot hold constitutional offices or buy agricultural land.
72
Can children of foreign diplomats posted in India acquire Indian citizenship by birth?
Explanation: The text states, "Children of foreign diplomats and enemy aliens in India cannot acquire Indian citizenship by birth."
73
Which article ensures that every citizen of India continues to be a citizen, subject to laws made by Parliament?
Explanation: Article 10 is the provision that guarantees the continuance of citizenship, subject to parliamentary legislation.
74
A person born outside India between Jan 26, 1950, and Dec 10, 1992, is a citizen by descent if:
Explanation: For the period between 1950 and 1992, citizenship by descent was determined by the father's citizenship status.
75
The concept of OCI was first introduced by which amendment?
Explanation: The text states, "the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003, introduced the concept of Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI)".
76
The 58th Amendment Act, 1987 provided for:
Explanation: The Q&A section on amendments explicitly states that the 58th Amendment provided for an authoritative text of the Constitution in Hindi.
77
Which amendment added the languages Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali to the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?
Explanation: The provided data confirms that the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003 added these four languages to the Eighth Schedule.
78
Which part of the Constitution deals with its amendment?
Explanation: The text states that Article 368 is in Part XX of the Constitution.
79
A bill for the formation of new states or alteration of areas of existing states can be passed by:
Explanation: The text lists "Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing states" as an item that can be amended by a simple majority and is not considered an amendment under Article 368.
80
Who famously described the Indian amendment procedure as striking a "good balance between flexibility and rigidity"?
Explanation: The text says, "Despite these criticisms, the procedure is lauded for striking a 'good balance between flexibility and rigidity'". It attributes other quotes to Nehru and Ambedkar but not this specific one.
81
A constitutional amendment bill seeks to change the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states. What is the procedure for its passage?
Explanation: The "Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states" is listed as a federal provision that requires amendment by a special majority of Parliament plus the consent of half of the states.
82
The addition of the Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules to the Constitution was done by which pair of amendments?
Explanation: The 73rd Amendment added the Eleventh Schedule (Panchayats), and the 74th Amendment added the Twelfth Schedule (Municipalities).
83
Which amendment extended the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies until 2020?
Explanation: The provided data includes a question answering that the 95th Amendment Act of 2009 extended these reservations.
84
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar noted that the framers provided a "________ procedure" for amendment.
Explanation: The last paragraph on the amendment procedure quotes Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as noting that the framers provided a "facile procedure" for amendment.
85
The provision for Administrative Tribunals was added by which amendment?
Explanation: The Q&A section confirms that the provision for Administrative Tribunals was added by the 42nd Amendment.
86
The Citizenship (Pondicherry) Order, 1962, was issued under the provisions of the:
Explanation: The text gives this as an example of incorporation of territory, and the Q&A section clarifies that the order was issued "under the Citizenship Act (1955)."
87
In India, both a citizen by birth and a naturalized citizen are eligible for the office of the President. In the USA, only a citizen by birth is eligible. This highlights a key difference in:
Explanation: This difference points to the fact that in India, once a person is a citizen (whether by birth or naturalisation), they have the same rights to hold the highest office, unlike in the USA where the type of citizenship matters for this specific right.
88
What happens to the citizenship of a minor child when their parent renounces Indian citizenship?
Explanation: The text states, "The minor child also loses their Indian citizenship, but they may resume it upon attaining the age of eighteen."
89
The rule that only a person whose rights are infringed can move the court for remedies is known as:
Explanation: The Q&A section defines "locus standi" as "the traditional rule that only a person whose rights are infringed can move the court for remedies."
90
Which of these is NOT a ground for compulsory termination of citizenship by deprivation?
Explanation: Voluntarily acquiring foreign citizenship leads to automatic loss of citizenship by "Termination," not by "Deprivation," which is a compulsory act by the government on specific grounds like fraud or disloyalty.
91
Consider the following statements regarding the amendment procedure:
1. A bill for the amendment can only be introduced by a minister.
2. Presidential assent to the bill is mandatory and cannot be withheld.
3. The procedure is a blend of rigidity and flexibility.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. A bill for the amendment can only be introduced by a minister.
2. Presidential assent to the bill is mandatory and cannot be withheld.
3. The procedure is a blend of rigidity and flexibility.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; a bill can be introduced by a minister or a private member. Statement 2 is correct (due to the 24th Amendment). Statement 3 is a key characteristic of the Indian amendment process mentioned in the text.
92
Which amendment added Sindhi as the 15th language in the Eighth Schedule?
Explanation: The provided Q&A mentions that the 21st Amendment Act of 1967 was responsible for the inclusion of Sindhi in the Eighth Schedule.
93
Which of the following is NOT listed as a 'federal provision' requiring state ratification for its amendment?
Explanation: The text explicitly lists Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) under the category of provisions that can be amended by a Special Majority of the Parliament alone, without state consent.
94
The 7th Amendment Act, 1956, made which significant provision regarding the office of the governor?
Explanation: A question in the provided data explicitly states that the 7th Amendment provided for the appointment of the same person as governor for two or more states.
95
Jawaharlal Nehru supported a flexible amendment procedure because he believed:
Explanation: The text states, "Jawaharlal Nehru believed this flexibility was essential for a living constitution."
96
If an OCI Cardholder has been registered for _______ years and is ordinarily resident in India for _______ months before applying, they can apply for Indian citizenship.
Explanation: The text mentions under the "By Registration" category that a person "who has been registered as an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder for five years and is ordinarily resident in India for twelve months before applying" is eligible.
97
The Indian Constitution provides for a single citizenship. This promotes:
Explanation: The last sentence on Single Citizenship states, "Single citizenship promotes a sense of unity and fraternity among the people."
98
Which amendment sought to make constitutional amendments non-justiciable (i.e., beyond judicial review)?
Explanation: A question in the provided data states that the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 sought to make constitutional amendments non-justiciable.
99
Which of the following can be changed by the Parliament through an ordinary law, and not a constitutional amendment?
Explanation: The text lists "Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament" as one of the provisions that can be amended by a simple majority, similar to an ordinary legislative process and not under Article 368.
100
Which amendments restored most of the powers of the judiciary that were curtailed by the 42nd Amendment?
Explanation: The provided Q&A section explicitly mentions that the 43rd and 44th Amendment Acts restored most of the judicial powers that had been curtailed by the 42nd Amendment.