Preparing for the UPSC Civil Services Prelims? Challenge yourself with our comprehensive mock test featuring over 100 high-quality MCQs designed to cover the entire Indian Polity syllabus. This mega quiz dives deep into crucial topics like the Constituent Assembly, Preamble, Fundamental Rights & Duties, DPSP, Constitutional Bodies, and Emergency Provisions. To give you a complete practice session, we've also included 10 challenging UPSC-level CSAT questions covering Mathematics and Mental Ability. Each question is followed by a detailed explanation to help you revise concepts and strengthen your preparation.
1
Consider the following statements regarding the initial composition of the Constituent Assembly of India:
1. The total strength of the Assembly was fixed at 389 members.
2. Seats were allocated based on a rough proportion of one seat per million people.
3. Representatives of the princely states were directly elected by the people of those states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as the total strength was 389. Statement 2 is correct as seats were allocated in proportion to the population, roughly one seat for every million. Statement 3 is incorrect as the representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of those states, not elected.
2
Match the following committees of the Constituent Assembly with their respective Chairmen:
| List-I (Committee) | List-II (Chairman) |
|---|
| A. Union Powers Committee | 1. Sardar Patel |
| B. Provincial Constitution Committee | 2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad |
| C. Steering Committee | 3. Jawaharlal Nehru |
| D. Drafting Committee | 4. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar |
A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Explanation: The correct matches are:
Union Powers Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
Provincial Constitution Committee: Sardar Patel
Steering Committee: Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Drafting Committee: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
Therefore, the correct code is A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4.
3
The 'Objectives Resolution', which later became the Preamble, was moved in the Constituent Assembly by __________.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation: On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru presented the historic 'Objectives Resolution'. This resolution outlined the fundamental principles and philosophy that would guide the framing of the Constitution.
4
When the Constituent Assembly met as a legislative body, who chaired the meeting?
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
G.V. Mavlankar
Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly also became a legislative body. When it met as the Constituent body, it was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad, and when it met as the legislative body, it was chaired by G.V. Mavlankar.
5
Which of the following functions were performed by the Constituent Assembly of India, apart from constitution-making?
1. Ratification of India's membership of the Commonwealth.
2. Adoption of the national flag.
3. Election of the first President of India.
4. Appointing the first Prime Minister of India.
Select the correct answer from the codes below:
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly ratified India's Commonwealth membership in May 1949, adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947, and elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950. Appointing the Prime Minister was not one of its functions.
6
Who were the two Vice-Presidents of the Constituent Assembly?
H.C. Mukherjee and B.N. Rau
V.T. Krishnamachari and B.L. Mitter
H.C. Mukherjee and V.T. Krishnamachari
K.M. Munshi and H.C. Mukherjee
Explanation: After Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President, H.C. Mukherjee and V.T. Krishnamachari were elected as the two Vice-Presidents of the Assembly.
7
Which amendment to the Constitution added the words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' to the Preamble?
44th Amendment Act, 1978
24th Amendment Act, 1971
42nd Amendment Act, 1976
1st Amendment Act, 1951
Explanation: The Preamble has been amended only once by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added three new words: Socialist, Secular, and Integrity.
8
Arrange the following words from the Preamble in the order they appear:
1. DEMOCRATIC
2. SOCIALIST
3. SOVEREIGN
4. SECULAR
5. REPUBLIC
Select the correct sequence from the codes below.
3-4-2-1-5
3-2-4-1-5
2-3-4-1-5
3-2-1-4-5
Explanation: The Preamble declares India to be a "SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC". Therefore, the correct order is 3-2-4-1-5.
9
In which landmark case did the Supreme Court hold for the first time that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution, overturning its earlier opinion?
Golaknath case (1967)
Minerva Mills case (1980)
Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
Berubari Union case (1960)
Explanation: In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble was not part of the Constitution. However, this was overturned in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), where the Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
10
What does the term 'Republic' in the Preamble signify?
1. The head of the state is always elected for a fixed period.
2. Political sovereignty is vested in a single individual like a king.
3. All public offices are open to every citizen without discrimination.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation: 'Republic' means the head of state (the President in India) is elected for a fixed term. It also means that political sovereignty is vested in the people (not a monarch), and all public offices are open to all citizens without discrimination. Statement 2 is incorrect.
11
What are the four key ingredients or components revealed by the Preamble?
The powers of the Parliament, Judiciary, Executive, and President.
Fundamental Rights, DPSP, Fundamental Duties, and Emergency Provisions.
Source of authority, Nature of Indian State, Objectives of the Constitution, and Date of adoption.
The names of all members of the Constituent Assembly, the date of enactment, and the signature of the President.
Explanation: The Preamble reveals four key components: 1. Source of authority of the Constitution (the people of India). 2. Nature of the Indian State (Sovereign, Socialist, etc.). 3. Objectives of the Constitution (Justice, Liberty, etc.). 4. Date of adoption of the Constitution (November 26, 1949).
12
The term 'Fraternity' in the Preamble aims to assure which two things?
Justice and Liberty
Equality and Justice
Dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation
Sovereignty of the people and the authority of the Constitution
Explanation: The Preamble states that Fraternity must assure two things: "the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation". The word 'integrity' was added by the 42nd Amendment.
13
The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of which country?
United Kingdom
Ireland
United States of America
Canada
Explanation: The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had itself taken it from the Spanish Constitution.
14
Which of the following Directive Principles is based on Gandhian ideology?
To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code.
To separate the judiciary from the executive.
To organise village panchayats as units of self-government.
To provide free legal aid to the poor.
Explanation: Organising village panchayats (Article 40) is a core Gandhian principle representing his program of reconstruction. A uniform civil code and separation of judiciary are liberal-intellectual principles, while free legal aid is a socialistic principle.
15
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described the Directive Principles as __________ of the Indian Constitution.
'the soul of the constitution'
'novel features'
'a cheque on a bank, payable only when the resources permit'
'the conscience of the constitution'
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar referred to the Directive Principles of State Policy as 'novel features' of the Indian Constitution. Granville Austin considered the DPSP along with Fundamental Rights as the 'Conscience of the Constitution'.
16
The 86th Amendment Act, 2002, changed the subject matter of which Article, requiring the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years?
Article 45
Article 41
Article 46
Article 21A
Explanation: The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter of Article 45 and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21A. The amended directive in Article 45 requires the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.
17
The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle related to __________.
Panchayati Raj Institutions
Worker participation in management
Co-operative societies
Protection of environment
Explanation: The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle in Article 43B, requiring the state to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control, and professional management of co-operative societies.
18
In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that:
Directive Principles are superior to Fundamental Rights.
Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, including the basic structure.
The Indian Constitution is founded on the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles, which is a basic feature.
Article 31C, as extended by the 42nd Amendment, is fully valid.
Explanation: In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court invalidated the extension of Article 31C's scope by the 42nd Amendment. It famously ruled that the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles, and this balance is an essential feature of the basic structure of the Constitution.
19
The Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by which amendment?
42nd Amendment Act, 1976
86th Amendment Act, 2002
44th Amendment Act, 1978
61st Amendment Act, 1989
Explanation: The Right to Property (Article 31) was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.
20
Which article of the Constitution abolishes 'Untouchability'?
Article 16
Article 18
Article 17
Article 15
Explanation: Article 17 abolishes 'untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form.
21
The Right to Education for children between the ages of six and fourteen was made a Fundamental Right under which Article?
Article 21
Article 45
Article 21A
Article 19
Explanation: The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 added Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for all children between six and fourteen a Fundamental Right.
22
Who described Article 32 as the "very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it"?
Jawaharlal Nehru
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies) the "very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it".
23
The Supreme Court's wider interpretation of Article 21 to include the right to live with human dignity and the "due process of law" concept was significantly established in which case?
Gopalan case (1950)
Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
Menaka Gandhi case (1978)
Indira Sawhney case (1992)
Explanation: In the Menaka Gandhi case (1978), the Supreme Court ruled that the "procedure established by law" under Article 21 must be reasonable, fair, and just, effectively introducing the American concept of "due process of law".
24
Which Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency?
Article 19 and 20
Article 20 and 21
Article 21 and 22
Article 14 and 15
Explanation: The rights guaranteed by Articles 20 (protection in respect of conviction for offences) and 21 (protection of life and personal liberty) remain enforceable even during a National Emergency.
25
Which committee recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution?
Sardar Swaran Singh Committee
Verma Committee
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Ashok Mehta Committee
Explanation: In 1976, the Congress Party established the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to provide recommendations on the necessity of fundamental duties.
26
The eleventh Fundamental Duty was added by which amendment?
42nd Amendment Act
44th Amendment Act
86th Amendment Act, 2002
97th Amendment Act, 2011
Explanation: The eleventh Fundamental Duty, related to education for children, was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002.
27
What is the nature of the Fundamental Duties?
Justiciable
Non-justiciable
Partially justiciable
Depends on the specific duty
Explanation: Similar to the Directive Principles of State Policy, the Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable. The Constitution does not provide for their direct enforcement by the courts.
28
Which of the following was a recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee that was NOT accepted?
To respect the Constitution.
To make the duty to pay taxes a Fundamental Duty.
To protect the unity and integrity of India.
To safeguard public property.
Explanation: The Swaran Singh Committee's recommendations to impose penalties for non-compliance and to include the duty to pay taxes as a Fundamental Duty were not accepted.
29
Which Fundamental Duty requires citizens "to cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom"?
Article 51A(a)
Article 51A(b)
Article 51A(c)
Article 51A(d)
Explanation: This is the second duty listed, under clause (b) of Article 51A. It is considered a moral duty.
30
The Fundamental Duties serve to:
Act as a reminder to citizens that rights come with responsibilities.
Warn against anti-national and anti-social activities.
Help courts in determining the constitutional validity of laws.
All of the above.
Explanation: Despite criticism, the Fundamental Duties are significant as they serve as a reminder to citizens, a warning against anti-national activities, a source of inspiration, and an aid to the judiciary.
31
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Emergency Provisions?
Part XVI
Part XVII
Part XVIII
Part XX
Explanation: The Emergency provisions are enshrined in Part XVIII of the Indian Constitution, covering Articles 352 to 360.
32
A proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within what period from the date of its issue?
Two months
One month
Six months
Three months
Explanation: The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 reduced the period for parliamentary approval of a National Emergency proclamation from two months to one month.
33
During a National Emergency, what is the effect on the life of the Lok Sabha?
It is automatically dissolved.
Its term can be extended for two years at a time.
Its term is reduced by one year.
Its normal five-year term can be extended by Parliament for one year at a time for any length of time.
Explanation: During a National Emergency, the normal five-year term of the Lok Sabha can be extended by a law of Parliament for one year at a time for any length of time. This extension cannot continue beyond six months after the emergency ceases.
34
Which two Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency under any circumstances, as per the 44th Amendment Act, 1978?
Article 19 and Article 21
Article 14 and Article 15
Article 20 and Article 21
Article 21 and Article 22
Explanation: The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, made a crucial change to Article 359, stating that the President cannot suspend the right to move the court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Articles 20 (protection in respect of conviction for offences) and 21 (right to life and personal liberty).
35
The Supreme Court's judgement in which case laid down propositions to prevent the misuse of Article 356 (President's Rule)?
Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
Bommai case (1994)
Minerva Mills case (1980)
Shah Commission report (1977)
Explanation: The Bommai case (1994) was a landmark judgement where the Supreme Court laid down propositions to prevent the misuse of Article 356, including making the proclamation subject to judicial review.
36
How is a proclamation of Financial Emergency (Article 360) approved and how long does it continue?
Approved by special majority within one month; continues for six months at a time.
Approved by simple majority within six months; continues indefinitely.
Approved by simple majority within two months; continues indefinitely until revoked.
Approved by special majority within two months; continues for a maximum of three years.
Explanation: A proclamation of Financial Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament by a simple majority within two months of its issue. Once approved, it continues indefinitely until it is revoked, without needing repeated parliamentary approval.
37
Which committee, appointed in 1957, recommended the establishment of a scheme of ‘democratic decentralisation’ known as Panchayati Raj?
Ashok Mehta Committee
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
G.V.K. Rao Committee
L.M. Singhvi Committee
Explanation: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, appointed in 1957, was tasked with examining the Community Development Programme and recommended the establishment of a scheme of ‘democratic decentralisation,’ which came to be known as Panchayati Raj.
38
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 added a new schedule to the Constitution. What is this schedule and how many functional items does it contain?
Tenth Schedule, 18 items
Eleventh Schedule, 29 items
Twelfth Schedule, 18 items
Ninth Schedule, 29 items
Explanation: The 73rd Amendment Act added a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution, which contains 29 functional items for panchayats.
39
Which of the following is a compulsory provision of the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992?
Granting financial powers to panchayats to levy taxes.
Providing reservation for backward classes.
Establishment of a State Election Commission.
Giving representation to MPs and MLAs in panchayats.
Explanation: The establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting panchayat elections is a compulsory provision. The other options listed are voluntary provisions left to the discretion of the state legislatures.
40
Who constitutes the Gram Sabha as defined by the 73rd Amendment Act?
All elected members of the Panchayat.
All adult residents of the village.
All persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village within the Panchayat area.
The Panchayat President and Ward members.
Explanation: The Act defines the Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system, consisting of all registered voters in a village, i.e., all persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of the Panchayat.
41
According to the 73rd Amendment Act, what is the reservation provision for women in Panchayats?
Not less than one-fourth of the total seats.
Exactly one-third of the total seats.
Not less than half of the total seats.
Not less than one-third of the total seats and one-third of chairperson offices.
Explanation: The Act mandates that not less than one-third of the total seats are to be reserved for women (including seats reserved for SC and ST women). Furthermore, not less than one-third of the total number of chairperson offices at each level shall be reserved for women.
42
If a Panchayat is dissolved prematurely, fresh elections must be held within what period?
Three months
Six months
One year
As soon as possible, but no later than the original term.
Explanation: The 73rd Amendment Act fixes a five-year term for panchayats. If a panchayat is dissolved prematurely, fresh elections must be held within six months from the date of its dissolution.
43
According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, a person born in India on or after December 3, 2004, is considered a citizen of India only if:
Either of their parents is a citizen of India.
They have resided in India for 5 years.
Both parents are citizens of India, or one is a citizen and the other is not an illegal migrant.
Their father was a citizen of India at the time of their birth.
Explanation: The text specifies that for those born in India on or after December 3, 2004, citizenship is granted only if both parents are Indian citizens, or if one parent is a citizen and the other is not an illegal migrant at the time of their birth.
44
A person can lose their Indian citizenship by deprivation if they have been ordinarily resident out of India for ________ years continuously.
Explanation: The Citizenship Act, 1955, states that continuous ordinary residence outside India for seven years is a ground for compulsory termination of citizenship by the Central Government.
45
The power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship is vested in the:
President of India
Supreme Court of India
State Legislatures
Parliament
Explanation: Article 11 of the Constitution explicitly empowers the Parliament to make laws regarding all matters relating to citizenship, including its acquisition and termination.
46
The concept of single citizenship in the Indian Constitution was adopted from the constitution of which country?
USA
Switzerland
Britain
Canada
Explanation: The data mentions that the concept of single citizenship is borrowed from the British Constitution, contrasting it with the dual citizenship model of the USA and Switzerland.
47
The merger of the Person of Indian Origin (PIO) card scheme with the Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card scheme was done by the:
Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003
Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005
Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2015
A High-Level Committee recommendation
Explanation: The provided text explicitly states that "The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2015, merged the PIO card scheme with the OCI card scheme".
48
Regarding eligibility for the office of President, how does India's policy differ from that of the USA?
In India, only a citizen by birth can be President; in the USA, a naturalised citizen can be President.
Both countries require the President to be a citizen by birth.
Both countries allow both citizens by birth and naturalised citizens to be President.
In India, both a citizen by birth and a naturalised citizen are eligible; in the USA, only a citizen by birth is eligible.
Explanation: The text clearly states that in India, both citizens by birth and naturalised citizens are eligible for the office of President, whereas in the USA, only a citizen by birth is eligible.
49
Assertion (A): The President of India must give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
Reason (R): The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give assent to such bills.
A is true but R is false.
A is false but R is true.
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: The assertion that the President must give assent is a fact. The reason provided, the 24th Amendment Act, is precisely why this is the case, as it made presidential assent to constitutional amendment bills mandatory.
50
The "basic structure" doctrine, which limits Parliament's power to amend the Constitution, was established by the Supreme Court in the:
Golaknath case (1967)
Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
Minerva Mills case (1980)
Waman Rao case (1981)
Explanation: The provided text explicitly states, "...the Supreme Court, in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), ruled that Parliament cannot amend the 'basic structure' of the Constitution."
51
Which of the following statements about the procedure for a Constitutional Amendment Bill is INCORRECT?
It can be introduced by a private member.
It does not require prior permission of the President.
A joint sitting of both Houses can be convened to resolve a deadlock.
Each House must pass the bill separately by a special majority.
Explanation: The text clearly states, "There is no provision for a joint sitting of the two Houses if a disagreement arises" over a constitutional amendment bill. The other statements are correct features of the procedure.
52
Amending which of the following provisions requires a special majority of the Parliament plus the consent of at least half of the state legislatures?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy.
2. Representation of states in Parliament.
3. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
4. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
1 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: Amending DPSPs requires only a special majority. Abolition/creation of legislative councils requires a simple majority. Representation of states in Parliament and the Seventh Schedule lists are federal provisions requiring state ratification.
53
Which amendment is known as the 'Mini-Constitution' due to the large number of changes it brought to the Indian Constitution?
24th Amendment Act, 1971
42nd Amendment Act, 1976
44th Amendment Act, 1978
7th Amendment Act, 1956
Explanation: The provided text explicitly states that the 42nd Amendment of 1976 is "Known as the 'Mini-Constitution'".
54
What does "special majority" as required for most constitutional amendments under Article 368 mean?
A majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
A majority of the total membership of the House.
A majority of the total membership of the House AND a majority of two-thirds of the members present and voting.
A majority of 75% of the members present and voting.
Explanation: The text defines special majority as having two components: "a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members present and voting."
55
Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India (ECI):
1. The Constitution has fixed the number of Election Commissioners to three.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners hold office for a term of 6 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
3. The ECI is responsible for conducting elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, and Panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
2 only
1, 2 and 3
None of the above
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect as the number of Election Commissioners is determined by the President, not fixed by the Constitution. Statement 3 is incorrect because the ECI is not responsible for elections to Panchayats and Municipalities; these are overseen by State Election Commissions. Statement 2 is correct as per the provided data.
56
Match the following Constitutional Bodies with their corresponding Articles in the Constitution of India:
| List I (Body) | List II (Article) |
|---|
| A. National Commission for SCs | 1. Article 338B |
| B. Comptroller and Auditor General | 2. Article 280 |
| C. Finance Commission | 3. Article 148 |
| D. National Commission for OBCs | 4. Article 338 |
Select the correct code:
A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
Explanation: A. National Commission for SCs is under Article 338. B. Comptroller and Auditor General is under Article 148. C. Finance Commission is under Article 280. D. National Commission for OBCs is under Article 338B. Therefore, the correct match is A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.
57
What is the key difference between the removal process of the Chairman of a State Public Service Commission (SPSC) and their appointment process?
Appointed by the Governor but can only be removed by the President.
Appointed by the President but can be removed by the Governor.
Both appointment and removal are done by the Governor.
Both appointment and removal are done by the President.
Explanation: The text specifies that the Chairman and members of an SPSC are appointed by the Governor, but they can be removed only by the President, highlighting a key aspect of their independence.
58
The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India submits his audit report relating to the accounts of a State to the __________, who then tables it before the __________.
President; Parliament
Chief Minister; State Cabinet
President; State Legislature
Governor; State Legislature
Explanation: As per the provided text, the CAG submits reports related to state accounts to the Governor, who then causes them to be laid before the State Legislature. Reports on Union accounts are submitted to the President.
59
Which constitutional body is referred to as the "watchdog of the merit system" in India?
Election Commission of India
Comptroller and Auditor General
Union Public Service Commission
Finance Commission
Explanation: The description for the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) in the provided text clearly identifies it as the "watchdog of the merit system" in India.
60
Which statement accurately describes the independence of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
The CAG's removal procedure is similar to that of a Supreme Court judge, and their service conditions cannot be altered to their disadvantage post-appointment.
The CAG can be removed by the President at his pleasure, ensuring swift action against misconduct.
The CAG's salary and expenses are voted on by Parliament, making the office accountable to the legislature.
The CAG is appointed for a fixed term of 5 years, and there is no provision for a second term.
Explanation: The text ensures the CAG's independence through secure tenure (removal like an SC judge) and service conditions that cannot be altered post-appointment. The expenses are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India, not voted upon. The tenure is 6 years or up to age 65, not 5 years.
61
Which of the following subjects are included in the State List (List II) of the Seventh Schedule?
1. Police
2. Public Health and Sanitation
3. Banking
4. Fisheries
5. Railways
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3 only
3, 4 and 5 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation: According to the provided data, 'Police', 'Public Health and Sanitation', and 'Fisheries' are on the State List. 'Banking' and 'Railways' are on the Union List.
62
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 moved certain subjects from the State List to the Concurrent List. Based on the provided text, which of the following were among those subjects?
1. Education
2. Forests
3. Public Order
4. Protection of Wild Animals and Birds
5. Agriculture
Select the correct answer:
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 5 only
2, 4 and 5 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: The provided data explicitly mentions that 'Education', 'Forests', and 'Protection of Wild Animals and Birds' were moved from the State List to the Concurrent List. 'Public Order' and 'Agriculture' remain on the State List.
63
The principle of repugnancy, as mentioned in Article 254 of the Constitution, is applicable in case of a conflict between a central law and a state law on a subject enumerated in the:
Union List
State List
Concurrent List
Residuary Powers
Explanation: The principle of repugnancy specifically applies to the Concurrent List (List III), where both the Centre and states can legislate. In case of a conflict, the central law prevails over the state law.
64
'Criminal Law and Procedure', 'Marriage and Divorce', and 'Economic and Social Planning' are subjects mentioned in which list?
State List
Union List
Residuary List
Concurrent List
Explanation: These subjects are listed under the Concurrent List (List III), indicating shared legislative responsibility between the Union and the States.
65
Consider the following pairs:
1. Corporation Tax - Union List
2. Intoxicating Liquors - State List
3. Trade Unions - Concurrent List
4. Inter-state trade - State List
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: 'Corporation Tax' is on the Union List. 'Intoxicating Liquors' is on the State List. 'Trade Unions' is on the Concurrent List. 'Inter-state trade and commerce' is on the Union List, not the State List. Therefore, pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
66
The primary trigger for the Glorious Revolution in 1688 was:
The imposition of the Stamp Act.
The birth of a son to James II, raising the prospect of a Catholic dynasty.
The execution of King Charles I.
The invasion of England by France.
Explanation: The provided text explicitly states, "The birth of his son in 1688, which raised the prospect of a Catholic dynasty, was the final trigger."
67
Which of the following documents established Parliament's supremacy over the monarch after the Glorious Revolution?
The Bill of Rights (1689)
The Articles of Confederation
The Declaration of Independence
The Toleration Act (1689)
Explanation: The text mentions that the Bill of Rights in 1689 "Established Parliament's supremacy over the monarch in matters of law and finance."
68
Who was the primary author of the Declaration of Independence adopted on July 4, 1776?
George Washington
Thomas Jefferson
John Locke
William of Orange
Explanation: The passage clearly states, "...the Congress adopted the Declaration of Independence, a document primarily authored by Thomas Jefferson..."
69
The crucial turning point in the American War of Independence that led to a French alliance was:
The Siege of Yorktown
The Boston Tea Party
The passage of the Stamp Act
The American victory at the Battle of Saratoga
Explanation: The text highlights that "A crucial turning point came with the American victory at the Battle of Saratoga in 1777, which convinced France to enter the war as an ally of the Americans."
70
A is 50% more efficient than B. They start working together on a task, and after a few days, they complete 40% of the total work. Then, A leaves and B alone finishes the remaining work in 15 days. For how many days did A and B work together initially?
4 days
5 days
6 days
8 days
Explanation:
Step 1: Determine the efficiency ratio.
Let's assume B's efficiency (work done per day) is 2 units.
Since A is 50% more efficient, A's efficiency is 2 + (50% of 2) = 2 + 1 = 3 units per day.
Their combined efficiency when working together is 2 + 3 = 5 units per day.
Step 2: Calculate the total work.
A and B complete 40% of the work, so the remaining work is 100% - 40% = 60%.
B finishes this remaining 60% of the work alone in 15 days.
Work done by B = B's efficiency × Time = 2 units/day × 15 days = 30 units.
So, 60% of the total work is equal to 30 units.
Total Work = (30 / 60) * 100 = 50 units.
Step 3: Calculate the days they worked together.
The work they did together was 40% of the total work.
Work done together = 40% of 50 units = 20 units.
Time taken = Work done / Combined Efficiency = 20 units / 5 units per day = 4 days.
Therefore, A and B worked together for 4 days.
71
Find the odd one out from the given options: 0.6 (repeating), 0.60 (repeating), 0.66 (repeating), 0.666 (repeating)
0.66 (repeating)
0.60 (repeating)
0.6 (repeating)
0.666 (repeating)
Explanation:
By converting the repeating decimals to fractions:
0.6 (repeating) = 0.666... = 6/9 = 2/3
0.66 (repeating) = 0.6666... = 66/99 = 2/3
0.666 (repeating) = 0.6666... = 666/999 = 2/3
However, 0.60 (repeating) = 0.606060... = 60/99 = 20/33.
Since the first, third, and fourth options are all equal to 2/3, the odd one out is 0.60 (repeating).
72
P is the wife of B. D is the husband of C. B is the son of D. How is P related to C?
P and C are not related
C is P's aunt
C is P's mother
C is P's mother-in-law
Explanation:
B is the son of D, and D is the husband of C. Therefore, C is B's mother. Since P is the wife of B, C is P's mother-in-law.
73
In a certain code, CAT is written as WCD. If PEN is written as QGQ, how will TIX be written in that code?
Explanation:
The pattern in the original question is ambiguous and likely contains a typo. Standard logical patterns do not consistently connect CAT to WCD and PEN to QGQ. Based on the expected answer for TIX being AKU, a non-standard or flawed logic was used in the source question. For a typical exam, a clearer, more consistent pattern would be provided.
74
Find the next two terms in the series: 2, 3, 106, 177, 5618, 10443, ...
277954, 661137
297754, 616137
254977, 673116
279754, 636117
Explanation:
This is a combination of two separate series (an interleaved series):
Series 1: 2, 106, 5618, ... (Term 1, 3, 5, ...)
Series 2: 3, 177, 10443, ... (Term 2, 4, 6, ...)
Pattern in Series 1: 106 = 2 x 53. And 5618 = 106 x 53. So, the next term is 5618 x 53 = 297754.
Pattern in Series 2: 177 = 3 x 59. And 10443 = 177 x 59. So, the next term is 10443 x 59 = 616137.
Therefore, the next two terms are 297754 and 616137.
75
Raju walks 3 meters north from his office. He turns left and walks 3 meters. Then he turns right and walks 1 meter. How far is Raju from his office?
Explanation:
Let the office be the origin (0,0).
1. Walks 3m North: Position is (0, 3).
2. Turns left (West) and walks 3m: Position is (-3, 3).
3. Turns right (North) and walks 1m: Final position is (-3, 4).
The straight-line distance from the origin (0,0) to the final point (-3, 4) can be found using the Pythagorean theorem.
Distance = sqrt((-3)^2 + 4^2) = sqrt(9 + 16) = sqrt(25) = 5 meters.
76
The area of a pizza slice, which is a sector of a circle with an angle of 60°, is 77/3 sq. cm. What is the radius of the pizza slice?
Explanation:
The formula for the area of a sector of a circle is: Area = (angle / 360) * pi * r^2
Given, Area = 77/3 and angle = 60. Let's use pi = 22/7.
77/3 = (60 / 360) * (22/7) * r^2
77/3 = (1/6) * (22/7) * r^2
r^2 = (77 * 6 * 7) / (3 * 22)
r^2 = (7 * 11 * 2 * 3 * 7) / (3 * 2 * 11)
Cancelling the common terms, we get r^2 = 7 * 7 = 49.
Therefore, the radius r = sqrt(49) = 7 cm.
77
If the numbers 0.3, 0.6 (repeating), 0.75, 1.01 (01 repeating) are written in their rational form (p/q), which of the following is the correct representation?
3/10, 3/5, 3/4, 100/99
3/10, 2/3, 3/4, 101
3/10, 2/3, 3/4, 100/99
3/10, 3/5, 3/4, 101
Explanation:
Let's convert each number to its fractional form:
0.3 = 3/10
0.6 (repeating) = 0.666... = 6/9 = 2/3
0.75 = 75/100 = 3/4
1.01 (01 repeating) = 1 + 0.01 (repeating) = 1 + (1/99) = (99+1)/99 = 100/99
78
If 9^(x-3) = 27^(4-x), what is the value of x?
Explanation:
To solve this, we need to express both sides of the equation with a common base, which is 3.
9 = 3^2 and 27 = 3^3.
So, the equation becomes: (3^2)^(x-3) = (3^3)^(4-x)
Using the exponent rule (a^m)^n = a^(m*n), we get: 3^(2*(x-3)) = 3^(3*(4-x))
3^(2x-6) = 3^(12-3x)
Since the bases are now equal, we can equate the exponents:
2x - 6 = 12 - 3x
2x + 3x = 12 + 6
5x = 18
x = 18/5
79
If '+' means '÷', '×' means '-', and '-' means '+', what is the value of (20 + 4) × 6 - 1?
Explanation:
First, we substitute the new meanings for the operators in the expression:
Original expression: (20 + 4) × 6 - 1
New expression: (20 ÷ 4) - 6 + 1
Now, we solve using the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction):
= (5) - 6 + 1
= 5 - 6 + 1
= -1 + 1 = 0
80
The product of 'n' distinct prime numbers is 1155. The sum of these 'n' prime numbers is 27. Find the value of 'n'.
6
4
3
This is impossible as stated.
Explanation:
First, let's find the prime factorization of 1155 to identify the distinct prime numbers.
1155 = 3 x 5 x 7 x 11.
The distinct prime numbers whose product is 1155 are 3, 5, 7, and 11. Here, the number of primes ('n') is 4.
Now, let's check their sum: 3 + 5 + 7 + 11 = 26.
The problem states the sum is 27, but the actual sum is 26. There is a contradiction in the problem statement, as the conditions cannot be simultaneously met with prime numbers. Therefore, the question is logically flawed.
81
കൃശം എന്ന പദത്തിന്റെ വിപരീതപദം ഏത് ?
സമഷ്ടി
ഇവയൊന്നുമല്ല
വക്രം
മേദുരം
82
പെങ്ങൾ എന്ന പദം
പിരിച്ചെഴുതുന്നത് എങ്ങനെ ?
പെൺ + ങ്കൾ
പെൺ + കൾ
പെൺ + ങ്ങൾ
പെങ്ങ് + കൽ
Explanation:
- പൂങ്കാവനം - പൂ + കാവനം
- പൂന്തിങ്കള് - പൂ + തിങ്കള്
- പണക്കിഴി - പണം + കിഴി
- മനസ്സാക്ഷി - മനഃ+സാക്ഷി
- നിങ്ങൾ - നിൻ+കൾ
- വിദ്യാഭ്യാസം - വിദ്യ+അഭ്യാസം
83
' ധൂലകം ' എന്ന പദത്തിന്റെ അർത്ഥമെന്ത്?
നദി
ഗൗളി
വിഷം
മഞ്ഞ്
Explanation:
- അജം - ആട്
- അശുമ്പ് - ചേറ്
- അരരം - വാതിൽ
84
താഴെപ്പറയുന്നവയിൽ കിണറിന്റെ പര്യായപദം ഏത് ?
പ്രഹി
ഗല്ലഹം
തൂദം
ഉപനന്ദം
Explanation:
- ശരീരം - കായം , ദേഹം
- നാണം - ലജ്ജ , ത്രപ
- മകൻ - പുത്രൻ , തനയൻ
85
' മിടുക്കർ ' എന്ന പദം ഏത് വചന
ഭേദത്തിന് ഉദാഹരണമാണ് ?
നപുംസകലിംഗം
സലിംഗ ബഹുവചനം
അലിംഗ ബഹുവചനം
പൂജക ബഹുവചനം
Explanation: ബഹുവചനം മൂന്നുതരം .
- സലിംഗബഹുവചനം
- അലിംഗബഹുവചനം
- പൂജക ബഹുവചനം
- സലിംഗബഹുവചനം - പുല്ലിംഗം,സ്ത്രീലിംഗം,നപുംസക ലിംഗം എന്നിവയിലേതെങ്കിലുമൊന്നിന്റെ ബഹുത്വത്തെ കാണിക്കുന്നത്.
ഉദാ -ആണുങ്ങൾ ,ഗായികമാർ,വേലക്കാരികൾ ,ഭാര്യമാർ ,ആശാരിമാർ .
അലിംഗബഹുവചനം -പുല്ലിംഗവും സ്ത്രീലിംഗവും ചേർന്നത് .അവയ്ക്കു പൊതുവെയുള്ള ബഹുത്വം കാണിക്കുന്നത് .
ഉദാ-മനുഷ്യൻ,ആളുകൾ ,മക്കൾ ,ബന്ധുക്കൾ.
പൂജക ബഹുവചനം -ബഹുമാനം സൂചിപ്പിക്കുന്നതിനുവേണ്ടി പ്രത്യേകം ആദരവുകാട്ടിപ്പറയുന്ന ബഹുവചന രൂപം .
- ഉദാ-ഗുരുക്കൾ ,അവർകൾ ,രാജാക്കൾ ,ന്യായാധിപർ .
86
' ശ്രദ്ധയോടുകൂടിയവൻ ' എന്ന അർത്ഥം വരുന്ന ഒറ്റപ്പദം ഏത് ?
ശ്രാവിതൻ
ശ്രവിഷ്ഠൻ
ശ്രാദ്ധൻ
ശ്രാദ്ധികൻ
Explanation:
- അച്ഛൻറെ അച്ഛൻ - പിതാമഹൻ
- ആദ്യം തൊട്ട് അവസാനം വരെ - ആദ്യന്തം
- ഒഴിച്ചുകൂടാനാവാത്തത് - അത്യന്താപേക്ഷിതം
87
' മുട്ടുശാന്തി 'എന്ന ശൈലിയുടെ അർത്ഥമെന്ത്?
മുടക്കം വരുത്തുക
താൽക്കാലികമായ ഏർപ്പാട്
പൂർണ്ണമായി നിർവഹിക്കുക
പൂജ ചെയ്യുക
Explanation:
- ഒന്നാമൻ -പ്രഥമഗണനീയൻ
- പന്ത്രണ്ടുവർഷക്കാലം - വ്യാഴവട്ടം
- എളുപ്പത്തിൽ ചെയ്യാവുന്നത് - സുകരം
88
താഴെ കൊടുത്തിരിക്കുന്നവയിൽ നിന്ന് ശരിയായ പദം തിരഞ്ഞെടുത്ത് എഴുതുക
ദീർഘകാദരം
ദീർഘകന്ധരം
ദീർഘകദ്ധരം
ദീർഘകാന്ധരം
Explanation:
| തെറ്റായ പദം |
ശരിയായ പദം |
| പ്രാവിശം |
പ്രാവശ്യം |
| ഭാഗീകം |
ഭാഗികം |
| മഠയൻ |
മടയൻ |
89
താഴെ തന്നിരിക്കുന്നവയിൽ നിന്ന് ' ധാത്രി'യുടെ പുല്ലിംഗം തിരഞ്ഞെടുത്ത്
എഴുതുക ?
ധാതൻ
ധാത്രൻ
ധാത്രകൻ
ധാതാവ്
Explanation:
- അനാഥൻ - അനാഥ
- മൂപ്പൻ - മൂപ്പത്തി
- പഥികൻ - പഥിക
90
' UNEASY LIES THE HEAD THAT WEARS THE CROWN' എന്നതിന്റെ മലയാള പരിഭാഷ താഴെ കൊടുത്തിരിക്കുന്നവയിൽ നിന്നും തിരഞ്ഞെടുത്തു എഴുതുക
കിരീടം ധരിച്ച ശിരസ്സ് അലസമായിരിക്കും
കിരീടധാരണം ബുദ്ധിമുട്ട് ഉണ്ടാക്കുന്നു
അലസമായ ശിരസിലാണ് കിരീടം ധരിച്ചിരിക്കുന്നത്
കിരീടം ധരിക്കുന്ന ശിരസ് അസ്വസ്ഥമായിരിക്കും
Explanation:
- Let me go to dinner - എനിക്ക് വിരുന്നിനു പോകണം
- This is the standing order - ഇത് നിലവിലുള്ള ഉത്തരവാണ്.
- Play with fire- തീ കൊണ്ട് കളിക്കുക.
91
I saw___ one-eyed man in my dream
no article
the
a
an
Explanation: The words 'a' or 'an' (indefinite article ) always comes before a singular noun, never a plural noun. We refer to a general group of things named by the particular noun.
Thus, you refer indefinitely to a beer, an apple, or a political party in general without specifying which bear, which apple, or which political party.
When we define a particular bear we use 'the' in the sentence.
'A ' is used instead of 'an' here because the word 'one' starts with a consonant sound (the sound of 'w' ) eventhough first letter is a vowel.
92
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.<br><b>To leave someone in the lurch</b>
To put someone at ease
To desert someone in his difficulties
Constant source of annoyance to someone
To come to compromise with someone
Explanation:
- To leave in the lurch: Abandon or desert someone in difficult straits.
- For example, Jane was angry enough to quit without giving notice, leaving her boss in the lurch.
- An iron will - A strong will
- The olive branch - An offer of Peace
93
The brothers as well as their sister\(\textit{___}\) good at their studies
is
was
has
are
Explanation:
- The sentence has two or more brothers and one sister. Therefore, the verb will be in its plural form.
- The sentence is in the present tense. Hence, the verb will be in the present tense.
- Here the brothers and their sister are doing the same thing.
- Therefore, the verb 'are' is used here in the given sentence.
94
She studies very hard every night,\(\textit{___}\) ?
did she
will she
do she
doesn't she?
Explanation:
- We often use question tags when we expect the listener to agree with our statement.
- In this case, when the statement is positive, we use a negative question tag.
- E.g: She's a doctor, isn't she?
- If the statement is negative, we use a positive question tag.
- E.g: You hadn't been sleeping, had you?
- If the main clause has an auxiliary verb in it, you use the same verb in the tag question.
- E.g: She doesn't have any children, does she?
- If there is no auxiliary verb (in the present simple and past simple) use do / does / did
- E.g: He went to the party last night, didn't he?
95
The car\(\textit{____}\) (break) down and we had to walk home.
break
had broken
has broken
broke
Explanation:
- Break down - sudden loss of ability to function efficiently,
- Break up - to separate or come to an end
- Break out -escape or to start suddenly
- Break into - enter by force
96
My father will retire from service\(\textit{___}\) a year.
in
on
by
of
Explanation:
- A preposition is a word used to link nouns, pronouns, or phrases to other words within a sentence.
- They act to connect the people, objects, time and locations of a sentence.
- Prepositions are usually short words, and they are normally placed directly in front of nouns.
- Preposition "In" : Used for unspecific times during a day, month, season, year .
- Preposition "At" can be used to point out specific time and indicate a place and to indicate an email address , to indicate an activity.
97
The foreign phrase Respondez S’il vous plait means?
Summons issued by the court
Reply if you please
Roll of honour
Etiquette
Explanation:
- Respondez S’il vous plait is a French phrase
- Respondez S’il vous plait - Reply if you please
- I got a party invitation in the mail, and I called to Respondez S’il vous plait
98
She\(\textit{___}\)the orphan as her own child.
brought up
brought in
brought out
brought about
Explanation:
- Brought up - bring somebody up to do something
- Brought out - to produce something; to publish something
- Brought in - to introduce a new law
- Brought about - to cause something to happen
99
Choose the correct synonym from the given options :
Loquacious
Talkative
Thirsty
Beautiful
Ambitious
Explanation:
- Loquacious- tending to talk a great deal; talkative.
- Synonyms: garrulous, voluble, over-talkative, long-winded, wordy, verbose, profuse, prolix, effusive, gushing, rambling, communicative
- Antonyms: reticent, taciturn
100
A small shop that sells fashionable clothes, cosmetics, accessories etc., is called a:
Boutique
Booth
Stall
Store
Explanation:
- Store -a place where things are kept for future use or sale.
- Stall - a stand, booth, or compartment for the sale of goods in a market or large covered area.
- Booth - a small temporary tent or structure at a market, fair, or exhibition, used for selling goods, providing information, or staging shows.
- Boutique - a small shop selling fashionable clothes or accessories